1. Which is the primary goal of community health nursing?
A. To support and supplement the efforts of the medical profession in the promotion of health and prevention of
B. To enhance the capacity of individuals, families and communities to cope with their health needs
C. To increase the productivity of the people by providing them with services that will increase their level of health
D. To contribute to national development through promotion of family welfare, focusing particularly on mothers and children
2. CHN is a community-based practice. Which best explains this statement?
A. The service is provided in the natural environment of people
B. The nurse has to conduct community diagnosis to determine nursing needs and problems
C. The service are based on the available resources within the community
D. Priority setting is based on the magnitude of the health problems identified
3. Population- focused nursing practice requires which of the following processes?
A. Community organizing .
B. Nursing, process
C. Community diagnosis
D. Epidemiologic process
4. RA 1054 is also known as the Occupational Health Act. Aside from the number of employees, what other factor must be considered in determining the occupational health privileges to which the workers will be entitled?
A. Type of occupation,: agriculture, commercial, industrial
B. Location of the workplace in relation to health facilities
C. Classification of the business enterprise based on net profit
D. Sex and age composition of employees
5. A business firm must employ an occupational health nurse when it has at least how many employees.
A. 21
B. 101
C. 201
D. 301
6. When the occupational health nurse employs ergonomic principles, she is performing which of her roles?
A. Health care provider
B. Health educator
C. Health care coordinator
D. Environment manager
7. A garment factory does not have an occupational nurse. Who shall provide the occupational health needs of the factory workers?
A. Occupational health nurse at the Provincial Health Office
B. Physician employed by the factory
C. Public Health nurse of the RHU of their municipality
D. Rural Sanitary inspector of the RHU in their municipality
8. "Public health services are given free of charge". Is this statement true or false?
A. The statement is true; it is the responsibility of government to provide haste services
B. The statement is false; people pay indirectly for public health services
C. The statement may be true or false; depending on the Specific service required
D. The statement may be true or false; depending on policies of the government concerned.
9. According to C.E. Winslow, which of the following is the goal of Public Health?
A. For people to attain their birthrights and longevity
B. For promotion of health and prevention and diseases
C. For people to have access to basic health services
D. For people to be organized in their health efforts
10. We say that a Filipino has attained longevity when he is able to reach the average life span of Filipinos. What other statistic may be used to determine attainment of longevity?
A. Age-specific mortality rate
B. Proportionate mortality rate
C. Swaroop's index
D. Case fatality rate
11. Which of the following is the most prominent feature of public health nursing?
A. It involves providing home care to sick people who are not confined in the hospital
B. Services are provided free of charge to people within the catchment area
C. The public health nurse functions as part of a team providing a public health nursing service
D. Public health nursing focuses on preventive, not curative services
12. According to Margaret Shetland, the philosophy of public health nursing is based on which of the following?
A. Health and longevity as birthrights
B. The mandate of the state to protect the birthrights of its citizens
C. Public health nursing as a specialized field of nursing
D. The worth and dignity of man
13. Which of the following is the mission of the Department of Health?
A. Health for all Filipinos
B. Ensure the accessibility and quality of health
C. Improve the general health status of the population
D. Health in the hands of the Filipino people by the year 2020
14. Region IV Hospital is classified as what level of facility?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Intermediate
D. Tertiary
15. What is true of primary facilities?
A. They are usually government-run
B. Their services are provided on an out-patient basis
C. They are training facilities for health professionals
D. A community hospital is an example of this level of health facilities
16. Which is an example of the school nurse's health care provider function?
A. Requesting for BCG from the RHU for school entrance immunization
B. Conducting random classroom inspection during measles epidemic
C. Taking remedial action on an accident hazard in the school playground
D. Observing places in the school where pupils spend their free times
17. When the nurse determines whether resources were maximized in implementing Ligtas Tigdas, she is evaluating:
A. Effectiveness
B. Efficiency
C. Adequacy
D. Appropriateness
18. You are a new B.S.N. graduate. You want to become a Public Health Nurse. Where will you apply?
A. Department of Health
B. Provincial Health Office
C. Regional Health Office
D. Rural Health Unit
19. RA 7160 mandates devolution of basic services from the national government to local government units. Which of the following is the major goal of devolution?
A. To strengthen local government units
B. To allow greater autonomy to local government units.
C. To empower the people and promote their self-reliance
D. To make basic services more accessible to the people
20. Who is the Chairman of the Municipal Health Board?
A. Mayor
B. Municipal Health Officer
C. Public Health Nurse
D. Any qualified physician
21. Which level of health facility is the usual point of entry of a client into the health care delivery system?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Intermediate
D. Tertiary
22. The public health nurse is the supervisor of rural health midwives. Which of the following is a supervisory function of the pubic health nurse?
A. Referring cases or patients to the midwife
B. Providing technical guidance to the midwife
C. Proving nursing care to cases referred by the midwife
D. Formulating and implementing training programs for midwives
23. One of the participants in a hilot training class asked you to whom she should refer a patient in labor who develops a complication. You will answer, to the;
A. Public health nurse
B. Rural health midwife
C. Municipal health officer
D. Any of these health professionals
24. You are the public health nurse in a municipality with a total population of about 20,000. There are3 health midwives among the RHU personnel. How many more midwife items will the RHU need?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
25. If the RHU needs additional midwife items, you will submit the request for additional midwife items for approval to the:
A. Rural Health Unit
B. District Health Office
C. Provincial Health Office
D. Municipal Health Board
26. As an epidemiologist, the nurse is responsible for reporting cases or notifiable diseases. What law mandates reporting cases of notifiable diseases?
A. Act 3573
B. RA.3753
C. RA 1054
D. RA 1082
27. According to Freeman and Heinrich, community health nursing is a developmental service. Which of the following best illustrates this statement?
A. The community health nurse continuously develops himself personally and professionally
B. Health education and community organizing are necessary in providing community health services
C. Community health nursing in intended primarily for health promotion and prevention and treatment of disease.
D. The goal of community health nursing is to provide nursing services to people in their own place of .residence
28. Which disease was declared through Presidential Proclamation No. 4 as a target for, eradication in the
A. Pioliomyelitis
B. Measles
C. Rabies
D. Neonatal Tetanus
29. The public health nurse is responsible for presenting the municipal health statistics using graphs and tables. To compare the frequency of the leading causes of mortality in the municipality, which graph will you prepare?
A. Line
B. Bar
C. Pie
D. Scatter diagram
30. Which step in community organizing involves training of potential leaders in the community?
A. Integration
B. Community organization
C. Community study
D. Core group formation
31. In which step are plans formulated for solving community problems?
A. Mobilization
B. Community organization
C. Follow-up/extension
D. Core group formation
32. The public health nurse takes an active role in community participation. What is the primary goal of community organizing?
A. To educate the people regarding community health problems
B. To mobilize the people to resolve community health problems
C. To maximize the community's resources in dealing with health problems
33. An indicator of success in community organizing is when people are able to:
A. Participate in community activities for the solution of a community problem
B. Implement activities for the solution of the community problem
C. Plan activities for the solution of the community problem
D. Identify the health problem as a common concern
34. Tertiary prevention is needed in which stage of the natural history of disease?
A. Pre-pathogenesis
B. Pathogenesis
C. Predromal
D. Terminal
35. Isolation of a child with measles belongs to what level of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Intermediate
D. Tertiary
36. On the other hand, Operation Timbang is_____ prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Intermediate
D. Tertiary
37. Which type of family-nurse contact will provide you with the best opportunity to observe family dynamics?
A. Clinic consultation
B. Group conferences
C. Home visit
D. Written communication
38. The typology of family nursing problems is used in the statement of nursing diagnosis in the care of families. The youngest child of the delos Reyes family has been diagnosed as mentally retarded. This is classified as:
A. Health threat
B. Health deficit
C. Foreseeable crisis
D. Stress point
39. The delos Reyes coupled have 6-year old child entering school for the first time. The delos Reyes family has a:
A. Health threat
B. Health deficit
C. Foreseeable crisis
D. Stress point
40. Which of the following is an advantage of a home visit?
A. It allows the nurse to provide nursing care to a greater number of people
B. It provides an opportunity to do first hand appraisal of the home situation
C. It allows sharing of experience among people with similar health problems
D. It develops the family's initiative in providing for health needs of its members
41. Which is CONTRARY to the principles in planning a home visit?
A. A home visit should have a purpose of objective
B. The plan should revolve around the family health .needs
C. A home visit should be conducted in the manner prescribed by RHU
D. Planning of continuing care should involve a responsible-family member
42. The PHN bag is an important tool in providing nursing care during a home visit. The most important principle in bag technique states that it;
A. Should save time and effort
B. Should minimize if not totally prevent the spread of infection
C. Should not overshadow concern for the patient and his family
D. May be done in variety of ways depending on the home situation, etc.
43. To maintain the cleanliness of the bag and its contents, which of the following must the nurse do?
A. Wash his/her hands before and after providing nursing care to the family members
B. In the care of family member's, as much as possible, use only articles taken from the bag
C. Put on an apron to protect her uniform and fold it with the right side out before putting it back into the bag.
D. At the end of the visit, fold the lining on which the bag was placed, ensuring that the contaminated side is on the outside.
44. The public health conducts a study on the factors contributing to the high morality rate due to heart diseases in the municipality where she works. Which branch of epidemiology does the nurse practice in this situation?
A. Descriptive
B. Analytical
C. Therapeutic
D. Evaluation
45. Which of the following is a function of epidemiology?
A. Identifying the disease condition based on manifestations presented by a client
B. Determining factors that contributed to the occurrence of pneumonia in a 3 year old
C. Determining the efficacy of the antibiotic used in the treatment of the 3 year old client with pneumonia
D. Evaluating the effectiveness of the implementation of the Integrated Management of Childhood Illness
46. Which of the following is an epidemiologic function of the nurse during an epidemic?
A Conducting assessment of suspected cases to detect the communicable diseases
B. Monitoring the condition of the cases affected by the communicable disease
C. Participating in the investigation to determine the source of epidemic
D. Teaching the community on preventive measures against the disease
47. The primary purpose of conducting an epidemiologic investigation is to;
A. Delineate the etiology of the epidemic
B. Encourage cooperation and support of the community
C. Identify groups who are at risk of contracting the disease
D. Identify geographical location of cases of the disease in the community
48. Which is a characteristic of person-to-person propagated epidemic?
A. There are more cases of the disease than expected
B. The disease must necessarily be transmitted through a vector
C. The spread of the disease can be attributed to a common vehicle
D. There is gradual build up of cases before we epidemic becomes easily noticeable
49. In the investigation of an epidemic, you compare the present frequency of the disease with the usual frequency at this time of the year in this community. This is done during which stage of the investigation?
A. Establishing the epidemic
B. Testing the hypothesis
C. Formulation of the hypothesis
D. Appraisal of facts
50. The number of cases of Dengue fever usually increases towards the end of the rainy season. This pattern of occurrence of Dengue fever is best described as;
A. Epidemic occurrence
B. Cyclical variation
C. Sporadic occurrence
D. Secular occurrence
51. In the year 1980, the World Health Organization declared the
A. Pneumonic plaque
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Small pox
D. Anthrax
52. In the census of the
A. 99.06:100
B. 100.94:100
C. 50.23%
D. 49.76%
53. Primary health care is a total approach to community development. Which of the following is an indicator of success in the use of the primary health care approach?
A. Health services are provided free of charge to individuals and families
B. Local officials are empowered as the major decision makers in matters of health
C. Health workers are able too provide care based on identified health needs of the people
D. Health programs are sustained according to the level of development of the community
54. Sputum examination is the major screening tool for pulmonary tuberculosis. Clients would sometimes get false negative results in this exam. This means that the test is not perfect in terms of which characteristic of a diagnostic examination?
A. Effectiveness
B. Efficacy
C. Specificity
D. Sensitivity
55. Use of appropriate technology requires knowledge of indigenous technology. Which medical herb is given for fever, headache and cough?
A. Sambong
B. Tsaang gubat
C. Akapulko
D. Lagundi
56. What law created the Philippine
A. RA 8483
B. RA4823
C. RA 2483
D. RA 3482
57. In traditional Chinese medicine, the yielding, negative and feminine force is termed:
A. Yin
B. Yang
C. Qi
D. Chai
58. What is the legal basis of Primary Health Care approach in the
A. Alma Ata Declaration of PHC
B. Letter of Instruction No 949
C. Presidential Decree No. 147
D. Presidential Decree 996
59. Which of the following demonstrates inter-sectoral linkages?
A. Two-way referral system
B. Team approach
C. Endorsement done by a midwife to another midwife
D. Cooperation between PHN and public school teacher
60. The municipality assigned to you has a population of about 20/000. Estimate the number of 1-4 year old children who be given Retinol capsule 200.000 every 6 months.
A. 1,500
B. 1,800
C. 2,000
D. 2,300
61. Estimate the number of pregnant women who will be given tetanus toxoid during an immunization outreach activity in a barangay with a population of about 1,500.
A. 265
B. 300
C. 375
D. 400
62. To describe the sex composition of the population, which demographic tool may be used?
A. Sex ratio
B. Sex proportion
C. Population pyramid
D. Any of these maybe used
63. Which of the following is a natality rate?
A. Crude birth rate
B. Neonatal mortality rate
C. Infant mortality rate
D. General fertility rate
64. You are computing the crude rate of your municipality, with a total population o about 18,000 for last year. There were 94 deaths. Among those who died, 20 died because of diseases of the heart and 32 were aged 50 years or older. What is the crude death rate?
A. 4.1/1000
B. 5.2/1000
C. 6.3/1000
D. 7.3/1000
65. Knowing that malnutrition is a frequent community health problem, you decided to conduct nutritional assessment. What population is particularly susceptible to protein energy malnutrition (PEM)?
A. Pregnant women and the elderly
B. Under 5 year old children
C. 1-4 year old children
D. School age children
66. Which statistic can give the most accurate reflection of the health status of a community?
A. 1-4 year old age-specific mortality rate
B. Infant mortality rate
C. Swaroop's index
D. Crude death rate
67. In the past year, Barangay A had an average population of 1655. 46 babies were born in that year, 2 of whom died less than 4 weeks after they were born. They were 4 recorded stillbirths. What is the neonatal mortality rate?
A. 27.8/1000
B. 43.5/1000
C. 86.9/1000
D. 130.4/1000
68. Which statistic best reflects the nutritional status of a population?
A. 1-4 year old age-specific mortality rate
B. Proportionate mortality rate
C. Infant mortality rate
D. Swaroop's index
69. What numerator is used in computing general fertility rate?
A. Estimated midyear population
B. Number of registered live births
C. Number of pregnancies in the year
D. Number of females of reproductive age
70. You will gather data for nutritional assessment of a purok. You will gather information only from families with members who belong to the target population for PEM. What method of delta gathering is best for this purpose?
A. Census
B. Survey
C. Record Review
D. Review of civil registry
71. In the conduct of a census, the method of population assignment based on the actual physical location of the people is termed;
A. De jure
B. De locus
C. De facto
D. De novo
72. The Field Health Services and information System (FHSIS) is the recording and reporting system in public health) care in the
A. Tally report
B. Output report
C. Target/client list
D. Individual health record
73. To monitor clients registered in long-term regimens, such as the Multi-Drug Therapy, which component will be most useful?
A. Tally report
B. Output report
C. Target/client list
D. Individual health record
74. Civil registries are important sources of data. Which law requires registration of births within 30 days from the occurrence of the birth?
A. PD 651
B. Act 3573
C. RA 3753
D. RA 3375
75. Which of the following professionals can sign the birth certificate?
A. Public health nurse
B. Rural health midwife
C. Municipal health officer
D. Any of these health professionals
76. Which criterion in priority setting of health problems is used only in community health care?
A. Modifiability of the problem
B. Nature of the problem presented
C. Magnitude of the health problem
D. Preventive potential of the health problem
77. The Sentrong Sigla Movement has been launched to improve health service delivery. Which of the following is/are true of this movement?
A. This is a project spearheaded by local government units
B. It is a basis for increasing funding from local government units
C. It encourages health centers to focus on disease prevention and control
D. Its main strategy is certification of health centers able to comply with standards
78. Which of the following women should be considered as special targets for family planning?
A. Those who have two children or more
B. Those with medical conditions such as anemia
C. Those younger than 20 years and older than 35 years
D. Those who just had a delivery within the past 15 months
79. Freedom of choice in one of the policies of the Family Planning Program of the
A. Information dissemination about the need for family planning
B. Support of research and development in family planning methods
C. Adequate information for couples regarding the different methods
D. Encouragement of couples to take family planning as a joint responsibility
80. A woman, 6 months pregnant, came to the center for consultation. Which of the following substances is contraindicated?
A. Tetanus toxoid
B. Retinol 200,000 IU
C. Ferrous sulfate 200mg
D. Potassium iodate 200 mg, capsule
81. During prenatal consultation, a client asked you if she can have her delivery at home. After history taking and physical examination, you advised her against a home delivery. Which of the following findings disqualifies her for a home delivery?
A. Her OB score is G5P3
B. She has some palmar pallor
C. Her blood pressure is 130/80
D. Her baby is in cephalic presentation
82. Inadequate intake by the pregnant woman of which vitamin may cause neural tube defects?
A. Niacin
B. Riboflavin
C. Folic Acid
D. Thiamine
83. You are in a client's home to attend to a delivery. Which of the following will you do first?
A. Set up a sterile area
B. Put on a clean gown and apron
C. Cleanse the client's vulva with soap and water
D. Note the interval, duration and intensity of labor and contractions
84. In preparing a primigravida for breastfeeding, which of the following will you do?
A. Tell her that lactation begins within a day after delivery
B. Teach her nipple stretching exercises if her nipples are everted
C. Instruct her to wash her nipples before and after each breastfeeding
D. Explain to her that putting the baby to breast will lessen blood loss after delivery
85. A primigravida is instructed to offer her breast to the baby for the first time within 30 minutes after delivery. What is the purpose of offering the breast this early?
A. To initiate the occurrence of milk letdown
B. To stimulate milk production by the mammary acini
C. To make sure that the baby is able to get the colustrum
D. To allow the woman to practice breastfeeding in the presence of the health worker
86. In a mother's class, you discuss proper breastfeeding technique. Which of these is a sign that the baby has "lactated on" the breast property?
A. The baby takes shallow, rapid sucks
B. The mother does not feel nipple pain
C. The baby's mouth is only partly open
D. Only the mother's nipple is inside the baby's mouth
87. You explain to a breastfeeding mother that breastmilk is sufficient for all of the baby's nutrient needs only up to:
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 2 years
88. What is given to a woman within a month after the delivery of a baby?
A. Malunggay capsule
B. Ferrous sutfate l00mg O.D.
C. Retinol 200.000 IU 1 capsule
D. Potassium Iodate 200 mg, 1 capsule
89. Which biological used in EPI is stored in the freezer?
A. DPT
B. Tetanus toxoid
C. Measles vaccine
D. Hepatitis B vaccine
90. Unused BCG should be discarded how many hours after reconstitution?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. At the end of the day
91. In immunity school entrants with BCG, you not obliged to secure parental consent. This is because of which legal document?
A. PD 996
B. RA 7864
C. Presidential Proclamation No. 6
D. Presidential Proclamation No. 46
92. Which immunization produces a permanent scar?
A. DPT
B. BCG
C. Measles vaccination
D. Hepatitis B vaccination
93. A 4 week old baby was brought to the health center for his first immunization. Which can be given to him?
A. DPT1
B. OPV1
C. Infant BCG
D. Hepatitis B Vaccine
94. You will not give DPT 2 if the mother says that the infant had?
A. Seizures a day after DPT1
B. Fever for 3 days after DPT1
C. Abscess formation after DPT1
D. Local tenderness for 3 days after DPT1
95. A 2-month old infant was brought to the health center for immunization. During assessment, the infant's temperature registered at 38.1 C. Which is the best course of action that you will take?
A. Go on with the infants immunization
B. Give paracetamol and wait for his fever to subside
C. Refer the infant to the physician for further assessment
D. Advise the infant's mother to bring him back for immunization when he is well
96. A pregnant woman had just received her 4th dose of tetanus toxoid. Subsequently, her baby will have protection against tetanus for how long?
A. 1 year
B. 3 years
C. 10 years
D. Lifetime
97. A 4-month old infant was brought to the health center of cough. Her respiratory rate is 42/minute. Using the IMCI guidelines of assessment, her breathing is considered;
A. Fast
B. Slow
C. Normal
D. Insignificant
98. Which of the following signs will indicate that a young child is suffering from severe pneumonia?
A. Dyspnea
B. Wheezing
C. Fast breathing
D. Chest indrawing
99. Using IMCI guidelines, you classify a child as having severe pneumonia. What is the best management for the child?
A. Prescribe antibiotic
B. Refer him urgently to the hospital
C. Instruct the mother to increase fluid intake
D. Instruct the mother to continue breastfeeding
100. A 5-month old infant was brought by his mother to the health center because of diarrhea occurring 4 to 5 times a day. His skin goes back slowly after a skin pinch and his eyes are sunken. Using the IMCI guidelines, you will classify this infant in which category?
A. No signs of dehydration
B. Some dehydration
C. Severe dehydration
D. The data is insufficient
FUNDAMENTAL OF NURSING
1. The nurse knows which of the following indicates protein deficiency?
a. Hypoalbuminemia and pot belly
b. Koionychia (spoon-shaped nails)
c. Beefy red tongued.
d. Bleeding gums
2. Before administering a tube feeding the nurse knows to perform which of the following assessments?
a. The GI tract including bowel sound, last BM and distention
b. The clients neurologic status, especially gag reflex
c. The amount of air in the stomach
d. The formula used directly from the refrigerator
3. An adult is being taught about a healthy diet. The nurse can offer:
a. Milk
b. Jello
c. Freshly squeezed orange juice
d. Ice cream
5. An adult has received an injection of immunoglobulin. The nurse knows that the client will develop which of the following types of immunity:
a. Active natural immunity
b. Active artificial immunity
c. Passive natural immunity
d. Passive artificial immunity
6. BON Resolution No 432 S 2003 is:
a. Guidelines for the implementation of Board Resolution No. 14 S 1999
b. Implementing Rules and Regulations of RA 9173
c. Special training on intravenous injection for nurses
d. Adoption of a Guide to Evaluate Compliance with Standard for Safe Nursing Practice.
7. Its a type of non-probability sampling wherein the researcher identifies population strata and determines how many participants are needed for each stratum
a. Quota Sampling
b. Purposive Sampling
c. Convenience sampling
d. Simple stratified sampling
8. All but one are concepts of informed consent.
a. It must be voluntary-without coercion or force
b. Patient must be competent
c. Knowledgeable information should be provided
d. It must be signed right after administration of pre-ops meds.
9. The following concepts of liability negligence are true, except?
a. Deviation from standard of care is established.
b. Duty is owed to the nurse
c. Financial, physical and emotional harm is establish
d. Direct cause for failure to meet standard of care clearly established.
10. The nurse is caring for a client whose arterial blood gases indicate metabolic acidosis. The nurse knows that of the following, the least likely to cause metabolic acidosis is:
a. cardiac arrest
b. Diabetic ketoacidosis
c. decreased serum potassium level
d. renal failure
11. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving IV fluids, Which observation the nurse makes best indicates that the IV has infiltrated?
a. Pain at the site
b. A change in flow rate
c. Coldness around the insertion site
d. Redness around the insertion site
12. A 27 y.o adult is admitted for treatment of Crohn's disease. Which information is most significant when the nurse assesses nurtritional health?
a. Anthropometric measurements
b. bleeding gums
c. dry skin
d. facial rubor
13. ASA (aspirin) is being administered to a client. The nurse understands that the most common mechanism of action for nonnarcotic analgesic is their ability to:
a. Inhibit prostaglandin systhesis
b. After pain perception in the cerebellum
c. Directly affect the central nervous system
d. Target the pain-producing effect of kinins
14. The nurse caring for an adult client who is receiving TPN will need to be monitored for which of the following metabolic complications?
a. Hypoglycemia and Hypercalcemia
b. Hyperglycemia and Hypokalemia
c. Hyperglycemia and Hypokalemia
d. Hyperkalemia and Hypercalcemia
15. Total parenteral nutrition is ordered for an adult. Which nutrient is not likely to be in the solution?
a. Dextrose 10%
b. Trace minerals
c. Amino acids
d. Non of the above
16. A man has sprained his ankle. The physician would order cold applied to the injured area to.
a. Reduce the body's temperature
b. Increase circulation to the area
c. Aid in absorbing the edema
d. Relieve pain and control bleeding.
17. An adult is to have a tepid sponge bath to lower his fever. What temperature should the nurse make the water?
a. 65 F
b. 90 F
c. 110 F
d. 105 F
18. An adult has chronic lower back pain and receives hot pack three times a week. The nurse knows that the treatment is given for which of the following reasons?
a. To help remove debris from the wound
b. To keep the client warm and raise his temperature
c. To improve the client's general circulation
d. To relieve muscle spasm and promote muscle relaxation
19. An insane man got hold of a knife and stabbed a pregnant woman. His liability will be determined by virtue of :
a. Justifying circumstances
b. Exempting circumstances
c. Mitigating circumstances
d. Aggravating circumstances
20. A crime in which all the elements necessary for its execution and accomplishment are present.
a. Heinous crime
b. frustrated crime
c. consummated crime
d. attempted crime
21. Once criterion to assess the quality of a study is triangulation. This means.
a. accuracy and consistency of information
b. soundness of evidence
c. use of multiple sources for conclusions
d. consistency and stability of evidence over time
22. It is thought to be the most recent method or system in providing nursing care
a. Case System method
b. primary nursing method
c. functional nursing method
d. team nursing method
23. A patient classification system where patients minimal therapy and less frequent observation
a. minimal care (category 1)
b. moderate care (category 2)
c. maximum care (category 3)
d. intensive care (category 4)
24. The nurse is to apply a dressing to a stage II pressure ulcer. Which of the following dressing is best?
a. Dry gauze dressing
b. wet gauze dressing
c. wet to dry dressing
d. moisture vapor permeable dressing
25. The client has been placed in the trendelenburg position. The nurse knows the effects of this position to the client include which of the following.
a. increase blood flow to the feet
b. decrease blood pressure
c. increase pressure on the diaphragm
d. decrease intracranial pressure
26. A man who has been in an MVA is going into shock. Before placing the client in a modified trendelenburg position, the nurse should assess the client for:
a. long bone fracture
b. air embolus
c. head injury
d. thrombophlebitis
27. The nurse enter a room and finds a fire. Which is the best initial action?
a. Evacuate any people in the room, beginning with the most ambulatory and ending with the least mobile
b. activating the fire alarm or call the operator, depending on the institutions system
c. get a fire extinguisher and put out the fire
d. close all the windows and doors and turn off any oxygen or electricity appliance.
28. A member of the board of nursing may be removed and/or suspended on the following grounds except:
a. Toleration of irregularities in the licensure examination
b Violation of the Philippine Nursing Act
c. Neglect of duty or incompetence
d. Immoral unprofessional or dishonorable conduct
29. A tendency of the evaluator to inaccurately rate a group because of the belief that he/she has a very good cooperative group.
a. hawthorn effect
b. sunflower effect
c. horn's effect
d. halo effect
30. A type of probability sampling where the researcher selects random samples, successively from a larger to smaller units by either simple or stratified methods.
a. Multi-stage sampling
b. Systematic sampling
c. purposive sampling
d. snowballing sampling
31. The nurse is to open a sterile package from central supply. Which is the correct direction to open the first lap?
a. Toward the nurse
b. Away from the nurse
c. To the nurse's left or right hand
d. It does not matter as long as the nurse touches only the outside edge
32. The nurse knows which of the following is the proper technique for medical asepsis?
a. gloving for all the client contact
b. changing hospital linens weekly
c. using your hands to turn off the faucet after handwashing
d. gowning to care for a 1 year old child w/ infections diarrhea
33. An adult ha a left, above the knee amputation two weeks ago. The nurse places him in a prone position tree times a day because
a. Prevents pressure ulcer on the sacrum
b. helps the prosthesis to fit correctly
c. prevents flexion constractures
d. allow better blood flow to the heart
34. A woman is to have a pelvic exam. Which of the following should the nurse have the client do first?
a. Remove all her clothes and her socks and shoes
b. go to the bahtroom and void saving a sample
c. assume a lithotomy position on the exam table
d. assemble all the equipments needed for the examination
35. An adult is supine. Which of the ff. can the nurse to to prevent external rotation of the legs?
a. put a pillow under the clients lower legs
b. place a pillow directly under the client knee
c. use a trochanter rool alongside the client's upper thighs
d. lower the client's legs so that they ae below hips.
36. The following are elements of felony except?
a. There must be an act of ommision
b. such act or omission must be done voluntarily
c. such act maybe done with or without intent
d. such act or omission is punisable by law
37. To qualify as a dean of the college of nursing the applicants must have?
a. At least 5 years of teaching and supervision
b. At least 10 years of clinical practive
c. At least 3 years of being a clinical coordinator
d. At least 2 years management units.
38. A research design where there is manipulation of independent variable but no random or control group
a. longitudinal design
b. quasi-experimental
c. experimental
d. cross-sectional
39. Four clients have signaled with the call bells for the nurse. Who should you see first?
a. A client who needs to use the toilet
b. A client who does not have his glasses or hearing aide
c. A client who has just been given morphine
d. A client in a chair with a restraint vest on.
40. Which of the ff. should the nurse observe first?
a. A client who has just returned from the OR
b. A client whose call light is not working
c. A client with Alzheimer's disease
d. A client who is receiving a heating pad treatment
41. Which of the ff. should the nurse deal first?
a. A client who need her dressing changed
b. A client who needs to be suctioned
c. A client needs to be medicated for postoperative pain
d. A client who is incontinent and needs to be cleaned
42. One of the major ethical principles in research is beneficence that includes:
a. Right to protection of protection from physical and psychological harm
b. Right to full-disclosure
c. Right to performance of sources good
d. Right to protection of participants form exploration.
43. He described humans as "wanting organism" that satisfy their basic needs in a specific sequence?
a. Frederick Herzberg
b. Abraham Maslow
c. BF Skinner
d. Victor Vroom
50. A client has been receiving an IV solution. What is an appropriate expected outcome for this client?
a. Monitor fluid intake and output every 4 hours
b. The client remains free of signs and symptoms of phlebitis
c. edema and warmth over the IV site
d. Excess fluid volume evidenced by weight gain
51. This theorist of management developed the 14 principles of management based on his experience.
a. Mary Follett
b. Max Weber
c. Henry Fayol
d. Kurt Lewin
52. The nurse prepares to palpate a clients maxillary sinuses. For this procedure, where should the nurse place the hands?
a. On the bridge of the nose
b. below the eyebrows
c. below the cheekbones
d. over the temporal area
53. A client who receives general anesthesia returns from surgery. Postoperatively, which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority for this client?
a. Pain related to the surgery
b. Fluid volume deficit related to fluid and blood loss from surgery
c. Impaired physical mobility related to surgery
d. Risk for aspiration related to anesthesia
54. After a client receives an IM injection, he complains of a burning pain in the injection site. Which nursing action whould be best to take at this time?
a. apply a cold compress to decrease swelling
b. apply a warm compress to dilate the blood vessels
c. Massage the area to promote absorption of the drug
d. Instruct the client to tighten his gluteal muscles to enhance absorption of the drug
55. These are mitigating circumstances that lessen the penalty, except:
a. Under 18 and over 70
b. No intention to commit so grave
c. There was sufficient provocation
d. in contempt of authority
56. The nurse is monitoring options of effectiveness of drug therapy, when should the nurse obtain a measurement of the blood sample through level.
a. 1 hour before administering the next dose
b. immediately before administering the next dose
c. immediately after administering the next dose
d. 30 mins. after administering the next dose
57. Which of the following options servers a framework for nursing education and clinical practice?
a. Scientific breakthrough
b. technological advances
c. theoretical models
d. medical practices
58. Nursing care for a client includes removing elastic stocking once per day. What is the rationale for this interventions?
a. to increase blood flow to the heart
b. to observe the lower extremities
c. to allow the leg muscles to stretch and relax
d. To permit veins in the legs to fill with blood.
59. Hyperactive bowel sounds can result from all the following except.
a. Paralytic ileus
b. hunger
c. intestinal obstruction
d. diarrhea
60. The following characteristics speak of a leader except:
a. Do the right thing
b. focus on people
c. develops visions and strategies
d. have a short-term views
61. This theory of management suggest that an employees work motivation is controlled by conditions in the external environment rather than by internal needs and desires.
a. vroom's expectancy theory
b. skinner's operant theory
c. adam's equity theory
d. white competence theory
62. In Lydia Hall's theory, which of the ff. represents "core"?
a. Nurturance and factors that are exclusive to nursing
b. Therapeutic use of self
c. Focuses on nursing related to physicians order
d. All of the above.
63. A research that seeks to describe an existing problem situation and examine the underlying factors that contributes to the emergence of the problem:
a. Explanatory research
b. Quantitative research
c. Exploratory research
d. Quantitative research
64. During blood transfusion, the patient manifest tachycardia, distended neck vein and increase CVP reading, the nurse should
a. Obtain vital signs
b. Call the physician
c. Stop the infusion
d. Decrease the rate of infusion.
65. A nurse who is maintain in a private clinic in the community and renders service on materials and child health amont the neighborhood for a fee is
a. primary care nurse
b. an independent nurse practioner
c. nurse-midwife
d. a nurse specialist
66. A client comes to the clinic for a diagnostic allergy testing. Why is intradermal injections used for such tsting.
a. intradermal injection is less painful
b. intradermal drugs are easier to administer
c. intradermal drug diffuse more rapidly
d. intradermal drugs diffuse more slowly
67. A client is placed in isolation. Client isolation techniques attempt to break the chain of infection by interfering with the
a. Agent
b. susceptible host
c. transmission mode
d. portal of entry
68. A research hypothesis that proposes that there is association or significant relationship between variables is called.
a. null hypothesis
b. directional hypothesis
c. alternative hypothesis
d. non-directional hypothesis
69. Which of the ff. laboratory test results is the most important. indicator of malnutrition in a client with a wound?
a. serum potassium level
b. albumin level
c. lymphocyte count
d. differential count
70. Which detail of a clients drug therapy is the nurse legally responsible for documenting?
a. Peak concentration time of drug
b. Safe ranges of the drug
c. Clients socioeconomic data
d. client's reaction to the drug
71. Which of the ff. statements about these nursing practice acts are true?
a. These acts are not effective in the supervision or revocation of licensure of erring nurses
b. These acts have been authorized by the accredited national nurses organization
c. These acts usually define the scope of nursing practice
d. These acts describe the differences between a registered nurse and a practice nurse
72. The following are true on a manager except?
a. Are interested in efficiency
b. emphasize tactics, structure and system
c. motivate people to comply with standards
d. use person to person influence
73. The nurse is assessing tactile fremitus in a client with pneumonia. For this examination, the nurse hould use the:
a. fingertips
b. ulnar surface of the hand
c. dorsal surface of the hand
d. finger pads
74. The ff. activities belong to the design phase in the research process, except?
a. developing a time table
b. selecting the study design
c. determining sampling plan
d. conducting a pilot study
75. When inspecting a client's skin, the nurse finds a vesicle on the client's arm. Which description appliest to a vesicle?
a. flat, nonpalpable and colored
b. solid, elevated and circumscribed
c. circumscribed, elevated, and filled with serous fluid
d. elevated, pus-filled and circumscribed
76. Which nursing action is essential when providing continuous enteral feeding?
a. elevating the head of the bed
b. positioning the client on the left side
c. warming the formula before administering it
d. hanging a full day's worth of formula at one time
77. After initial assessment of a client, findings reveals a body temp of 38.5 C, Consequently the clients blood pressure can be expected to
a. Fluctuates
b. Remain the Same
c. Increase
d. Decrease
78. The nurse assesses the skin turgor of an elderly client. When evaluating skin turgor, the nurse should remember that:
a. Over hydration causes the skin to tent
b. Dehydration causes the skin to appear edematous and spongy
c. Inelastic turgor is a normal part of aging
d. Normal skin turgor is moist and boggy.
79. Which of the ff. does not govern the practice of nursing?
a. RA 7164
b. RA 9173
c. BON Resolution for Code of Ethics
d. Board Resolution Scope of Nursing Practice
80. A client with sever chest pain is brought to the emergency department. He tells the nurse, "I just have a little indigestion." Which of the following mechanisms is the client exhibiting?
a. Denial
b. Anxiety
c. Repression
d. Confusion
81. These are "in-between factors" present in research environment that threaten the internal and external validity of a research study.
a. Dependent variable
b. Independent variables
c. Intervening variables
d. Criterion variable
82. The ff. are motivational factors according to Herzberg, except:
a. Challenging aspects of the work itself
b. Added responsibility
c. Opportunities for personal growth
d. Quality of supervision
83. The nurse measures the client's temperature at 102 F. What is the equivalent centigrade temp?
a. 39.1 C
b. 47.2 C
c. 38.9 C
d. 40.1 C
84. A client is placed on a low-sodium (500mg/day) diet. Which client statement indicates that the nurse's nutrition teaching plan has been effective?
a. "I can eat a ham-and-cheese sandwich w/ potato chips for lunch"
b. "I choose broiled chicken with a baked potato for dinner"
c. "I choose a tossed salad w/ sardines and oil and vinegar dressing for lunch"
d. "Im glad i can still have chicken bouillon soup"
85. Why should an infant be quiet and seated upright when the nurse assess his fontanels?
a. The mother will have less trouble holding a quiet upright infant
b. Lying down can cause the fontanels to recede, making assessment more difficult.
c. The infant can breath more easily when sitting up
d. Lying down and crying can cause the fontanels to buldge
86. Communicating and using the research findings is under what phase of the research process?
a. Implementation phase
b. Dissemination phase
c. Analysis and interpretation phase
d. Design phase
87. To give a Z-tract injection, the nurse measures the correct medication dose and draws a small amount of air into the syringe. What is the rationale for this action?
a. Adding air decreases pain caused by the injection
b. Adding air prevents the drug from flowing back into the needle tract
c. Adding air prevents the solution from entering a blood vessel
d. Adding air ensures that client receives the entire dose.
88. Which of the ff. is true of Care System method?
a. Autonomy and authority for the care of four to siz patients on a 24-h basis
b. Assigning nurses to give total nursing care to a single patient
c. Divison of labor which nurses are assigned to perform secific tasks
d. Assigning a team to give total care to a selected group of clients
89. Which of the ff. best describes the action of the nurse who documents her nursing diagnosis?
a. She documents and charts it whenever necessary
b. She can be accused of malpractice
c. She does it regularly as an important. responsibility
d. She starts it only when the pt. is acutely ill
90. To help assess a clients cerebral function, the nurse should ask:
a. Have you noticed a change in your memory?
b. Have you noticed a change in your muscle strength?
c. Have you had any coordination problem?
d. Have you had any problems with your eyes?
91. The nurse is evaluating a postoperative client for infection. Which sign of symptom would be most indicative for infection?
a. The presence of an indwelling urinary catheter
b. Rectal temperature of 100F
c. Red, warm , tender incision
d. WVC count of 8,000/UI
92. A patient classification system where patients need close attention and complete care in most activities and requires frequent and complex treatments and medications
a. Minimal Care (category 1)
b. Moderate Care (category 2)
c. Maximum Care (category 3)
d. Intensive Care (category 4)
93. What nursing diagnosis is commonly used to develop a plan of care for managing client's drug regimen?
a. Noncompliance
b. Altered coping mechanism
c. Anxiety
d. Altered home maintenance
94. Which of the ff. provides that nurses be members of the national nurse organization?
a. RA 877
b. 1987 Code of Ethics approved by the house of delegates PNA
c. Board Resolution No 1955 promulgated by the Board of Nursing
d. RA 7164
95. The ff. are good sources of research problems except?
a. Literature
b. Clininal experience
c. Daily news reports
d. existing theories
96. What is the common goal of discharge planning in all care settings?
a. prolonging hospitalization until the client can function independently
b. Teaching client how to perform self-care activities
c. Providing the financial resources needed to ensure proper care
d. Preventing the need for medical follow-up care.
97. The physician prescribe as IV infusion of 1000 ml D5W every 12 hours for a client. The IV setup delivers 15 gtt/ml. Approx. how many drops should be administered each minute?
a. 18
b. 21
c. 24
d. 27
98. Which of the following provides the material and human resources and building the structure to care out the activities of the organization?
a. Planning
b. Organizing
c. Command
d. Control
99. A client is scheduled to receive a blood transfusion. During the transfusion, the nurse should observer for which sign or symptoms of a transfusion reaction?
a. Dizziness
b. Chills
c. Hypothermia
d. Hyperreflexia
100. The client has an abdominal hysterectomy, 10 hours ago. Which position should the nurse teach the client to avoid?
a. High Fowlers
b. lateral recumbent
c. Supine
d. Side lying
MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING
SITUATION : Hanford , A registered nurse, witnessed an old woman hit by a motorcycle while crossing a train railway. The old woman fell at the railway. Arthur rushed at the scene.
1. As a registered nurse, Hanford knew that the first thing that he will do at the scene is
A. Stay with the person, Encourage her to remain still and Immobilize the leg while
While waiting for the ambulance.
B. Leave the person for a few moments to call for help.
C. Reduce the fracture manually.
D. Move the person to a safer place.
2. Hanford suspects a hip fracture when he noticed that the old woman’s leg is
A. Lengthened, Abducted and Internally Rotated.
B. Shortened, Abducted and Externally Rotated.
C. Shortened, Adducted and Internally Rotated.
D. Shortened, Adducted and Externally Rotated.
3. The old woman complains of pain. Hanford noticed that the knee is reddened, warm to touch and swollen. Hanford interprets that this signs and symptoms are likely related to
A. Infection
B. Thrombophlebitis
C. Inflammation
D. Degenerative disease
4. The old woman told Hanford that she has osteoporosis; Arthur knew that all of the following factors would contribute to osteoporosis except
A. Hypothyroidism
B. End stage renal disease
C. Cushing’s Disease
D. Taking Furosemide and Phenytoin.
5. Martha, the old woman was now Immobilized and brought to the emergency room. The X-ray shows a fractured femur and pelvis. The ER Nurse would carefully monitor Martha for which of the following sign and symptoms?
A. Tachycardia and Hypotension
B. Fever and Bradycardia
C. Bradycardia and Hypertension
D. Fever and Hypertension
SITUATION: Mr. Douglas, An obese 35 year old MS Professor of OLFU Mr. Douglas is admitted due to pain in his weight bearing joint. The diagnosis was Osteoarthritis.
6. As a nurse, you instructed Mr. Douglas how to use a cane. Mr. Douglas has a weakness on his right leg due to self immobilization and guarding. You plan to teach Mr. Douglas to hold the cane
A. On his left hand, because his right side is weak.
B. On his left hand, because of reciprocal motion.
C. On his right hand, to support the right leg.
D. On his right hand, because only his right leg is weak.
7. You also told Mr. Douglas to hold the cane
A. 1 Inches in front of the foot.
B. 3 Inches at the lateral side of the foot.
c. 6 Inches at the lateral side of the foot.
D. 12 Inches at the lateral side of the foot.
8. Mr. Douglas was discharged and 6 months later, he came back to the emergency room of the hospital because he suffered a mild stroke. The right side of the brain was affected. At the rehabilitative phase of your nursing care, you observe Mr. Rojas use a cane and you intervene if you see him
A. Moves the cane when the right leg is moved.
B. Leans on the cane when the right leg swings through.
C. keeps the cane 6 Inches out to the side of the right foot.
D. Holds the cane on the right side.
SITUATION: Alfredo, a 40 year old construction worker developed cough, night sweats and fever. He was brought to the nursing unit for diagnostic studies. He told the nurse he did not receive a BCG vaccine during childhood
9. The nurse performs a Mantoux Test. The nurse knows that Mantoux Test is also known as
A. PPD
B. PDP
C. PDD
D. DPP
10. The nurse would inject the solution in what route?
A. IM
B. IV
C. ID
D. SC
11. The nurse notes that a positive result for Alfred is
A. 5 mm wheal
B. 5 mm Induration
C. 10 mm Wheal
D. 10 mm Induration
12. The nurse told Alfredo to come back after
A. a week
B. 48 hours
C. 1 day
D. 4 days
13. Mang Alfredo returns after the Mantoux Test. The test result read POSITIVE. What should be the nurse’s next action?
A. Call the Physician
B. Notify the radiology dept. for CXR evaluation
C. Isolate the patient
D. Order for a sputum exam
14. Why is Mantoux test not routinely done in the Philippines?
A. It requires a highly skilled nurse to perform a Mantoux test
B. The sputum culture is the gold standard of PTB Diagnosis and it will definitively determine the extent of the cavitary lesions
C. Chest X Ray Can diagnose the specific microorganism responsible for the lesions
D. Almost all Filipinos will test positive for Mantoux Test
15. Mang Alfredo is now a new TB patient with an active disease. What is his category according to the DOH?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
16. How long is the duration of the maintenance phase of his treatment?
A. 2 months
B. 3 months
C. 4 months
D. 5 months
17. Which of the following drugs is UNLIKELY given to Mang Alfredo during the maintenance phase?
A. Rifampicin
B. Isoniazid
C. Ethambutol
D. Pyridoxine
18. According to the DOH, the most hazardous period for development of clinical disease is during the first
A. 6-12 months after
B. 3-6 months after
C. 1-2 months after
D. 2-4 weeks after
19. This is the name of the program of the DOH to control TB in the country
A. DOTS
B. National Tuberculosis Control Program
C. Short Coursed Chemotherapy
D. Expanded Program for Immunization
20. Susceptibility for the disease [ TB ] is increased markedly in those with the following condition except
A. 23 Year old athlete with diabetes insipidus
B. 23 Year old athlete taking long term Decadron therapy and anabolic steroids
C. 23 Year old athlete taking illegal drugs and abusing substances
D. Undernourished and Underweight individual who undergone gastrectomy
21. Direct sputum examination and Chest X ray of TB symptomatic is in what level of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quarterly
SITUATION: Mikey, A male patient diagnosed with colon cancer was newly put in colostomy.
22. Mikey l shows the BEST adaptation with the new colostomy if he shows which of the following?
A. Look at the ostomy site
B. Participate with the nurse in his daily ostomy care
C. Ask for leaflets and contact numbers of ostomy support groups
D. Talk about his ostomy openly to the nurse and friends
23. The nurse plans to teach Mikey about colostomy irrigation. As the nurse prepares the materials needed, which of the following item indicates that the nurse needs further instruction?
A. Plain NSS / Normal Saline
B. K-Y Jelly
C. Tap water
D. Irrigation sleeve
24. The nurse should insert the colostomy tube for irrigation at approximately
A. 1-2 inches
B. 3-4 inches
C. 6-8 inches
D. 12-18 inches
25. The maximum height of irrigation solution for colostomy is
A. 5 inches
B. 12 inches
C. 18 inches
D. 24 inches
26. Which of the following behavior of the client indicates the best initial step in learning to care for his colostomy?
A. Ask to defer colostomy care to another individual
B. Promises he will begin to listen the next day
C. Agrees to look at the colostomy
D. States that colostomy care is the function of the nurse while he is in the hospital
27. While irrigating the client’s colostomy, Mikey suddenly complains of severe cramping. Initially, the nurse would
A. Stop the irrigation by clamping the tube
B. Slow down the irrigation
C. Tell the client that cramping will subside and is normal
D. Notify the physician
28. The next day, the nurse will assess Mikey stoma. The nurse noticed that a prolapsed stoma is evident if she sees which of the following?
A. A sunken and hidden stoma
B. A dusky and bluish stoma
C. A narrow and flattened stoma
D. Protruding stoma with swollen appearance
29. Mikey asked the nurse, what foods will help lessen the odor of his colostomy. The nurse best response would be
A. Eat eggs
B. Eat cucumbers
C. Eat beet greens and parsley
D. Eat broccoli and spinach
30. The nurse will start to teach Mikey about the techniques for colostomy irrigation. Which of the following should be included in the nurse’s teaching plan?
A. Use 500 ml to 1,000 ml NSS
B. Suspend the irrigant 45 cm above the stoma
C. Insert the cone 4 cm in the stoma
D. If cramping occurs, slow the irrigation
31. The nurse knew that the normal color of Mikey stoma should be
A. Brick Red
B. Gray
C. Blue
D. Pale Pink
SITUATION: Jojo, A 27 basketball player sustained inhalation burn that required him to have tracheostomy due to massive upper airway edema.
32. Wilma, His sister and a nurse is suctioning the tracheostomy tube of Jojo. Which of the following, if made by Weng indicates that she is committing an error?
A. Hyperventilating James with 100% oxygen before and after suctioning
B. Instilling 3 to 5 ml normal saline to loosen up secretion
C. Applying suction during catheter withdrawal
D. Suction the client every hour
33. What size of suction catheter would Wilma use for Jojo, who is 6 feet 5 inches in height and weighing approximately 145 lbs?
A. Fr. 5
B. Fr. 10
C. Fr. 12
D. Fr. 18
34. Wilma is using a portable suction unit at home, What is the amount of suction required by Jojo using this unit?
A. 2-5 mmHg
B. 5-10 mmHg
C. 10-15 mmHg
D. 20-25 mmHg
35. If a Wall unit is used, What should be the suctioning pressure required by Jojo?
A. 50-95 mmHg
B. 95-110 mmHg
C. 100-120 mmHg
D. 155-175 mmHg
36. Weng was shocked to see that the Tracheostomy was dislodged. Both the inner and outer cannulas was removed and left hanging on Jojo neck. What are the 2 equipment’s at james’ bedside that could help Wilma deal with this situation?
A. New set of tracheostomy tubes and Oxygen tank
B. Theophylline and Epinephrine
C. Obturator and Kelly clamp
D. Sterile saline dressing
37. Which of the following method if used by Wilma will best assure that the tracheostomy ties are not too tightly placed?
A. Wilma places 2 fingers between the tie and neck
B. The tracheotomy can be pulled slightly away from the neck
C. James’ neck veins are not engorged
D. Wilma measures the tie from the nose to the tip of the earlobe and to the xiphoid process.
38. Weng knew that James have an adequate respiratory condition if she notices that
A. Jojo’ respiratory rate is 18
B. Jojo’ Oxygen saturation is 91%
C. There are frank blood suction from the tube
D. There are moderate amount of tracheobronchial secretions
39. Weng knew that the maximum time when suctioning Jojo is
A. 10 seconds
B. 20 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 45 seconds
SITUATION : Hulyo was diagnosed with Acute Close Angle Glaucoma. He is being seen by Nurse Nene.
40. What specific manifestation would nurse Nene see in Acute close angle glaucoma that she would not see in an open angle glaucoma?
A. Loss of peripheral vision
B. Irreversible vision loss
C. There is an increase in IOP
D. Pain
41. Nurse Nene knew that Acute close angle glaucoma is caused by
A. Sudden blockage of the anterior angle by the base of the iris
B. Obstruction in trabecular meshwork
C. Gradual increase of IOP
D. An abrupt rise in IOP from 8 to 15 mmHg
42. Nurse Nene performed a TONOMETRY test to Mr. Batumbakal. What does this test measures
A. It measures the peripheral vision remaining on the client
B. Measures the Intra Ocular Pressure
C. Measures the Client’s Visual Acuity
D. Determines the Tone of the eye in response to the sudden increase in IOP.
43. The Nurse notices that Hulyo cannot anymore determine RED from BLUE. The nurse knew that which part of the eye is affected by this change?
A. IRIS
B. PUPIL
c. RODS [RETINA]
D. CONES [RETINA]
44. Nurse Nene knows that Aqueous Humor is produce where?
A. In the sub arachnoid space of the meninges
B. In the Lateral ventricles
C. In the Choroids
D. In the Ciliary Body
45. Nurse Nene knows that the normal IOP is
A. 8-21 mmHg
B. 2-7 mmHg
c. 31-35 mmHg
D. 15-30 mmHg
46. Nurse Jet wants to measure Hulyo CN II Function. What test would Nurse Jet implement to measure CN II’s Acuity?
A. Slit lamp
B. Snellen’s Chart
C. Wood’s light
D. Gonioscopy
47. The Doctor orders pilocarpine. Nurse Nene knows that the action of this drug is to
A. Contract the Ciliary muscle
B. Relax the Ciliary muscle
C. Dilate the pupils
D. Decrease production of Aqueous Humor
48. The doctor orders timolol [timoptic]. Nurse Nene knows that the action of this drug is
A. Reduce production of CSF
B. Reduce production of Aquesous Humor
C. Constrict the pupil
D. Relaxes the Ciliary muscle
49. When caring for Hulyo, Jet teaches the client to avoid
A. Watching large screen TVs
B. Bending at the waist
C. Reading books
D. Going out in the sun
50. Hulyo has undergone eye angiography using an Intravenous dye and fluoroscopy. What activity is contraindicated immediately after procedure?
A. Reading newsprint
B. Lying down
C. Watching TV
D. Listening to the music
51. If Hulyo is receiving pilocarpine, what drug should always be available in any case systemic toxicity occurs?
A. Atropine Sulfate
B. Pindolol [Visken]
C. Naloxone Hydrochloride [Narcan]
D. Mesoridazine Besylate [Serentil]
SITUATION : Wide knowledge about the human ear, it’s parts and it’s functions will help a nurse assess and analyze changes in the adult client’s health.
52. Nurse Tina is doing a caloric testing to his patient, Aika, a 55 year old university professor who recently went into coma after being mauled by her disgruntled 3rd year nursing students whom she gave a failing mark. After instilling a warm water in the ear, Aika noticed a rotary nystagmus towards the irrigated ear. What does this means?
A. Indicates a CN VIII Dysfunction
B. Abnormal
C. Normal
D. Inconclusive
53. Ear drops are prescribed to an infant, The most appropriate method to administer the ear drops is
A. Pull the pinna up and back and direct the solution towards the eardrum
B. Pull the pinna down and back and direct the solution onto the wall of the canal
C. Pull the pinna down and back and direct the solution towards the eardrum
D. Pull the pinna up and back and direct the solution onto the wall of the canal
54. Nurse Penny is developing a plan of care for a patient with Menieres disease. What is the priority nursing intervention in the plan of care for this particular patient?
A. Air, Breathing, Circulation
B. Love and Belongingness
C. Food, Diet and Nutrition
D. Safety
55. After mastoidectomy, Nurse Penny should be aware that the cranial nerve that is usually damage after this procedure is
A. CN I
B. CN II
C. CN VII
D. CN VI
56. The physician orders the following for the client with Menieres disease. Which of the following should the nurse question?
A. Dipenhydramine [Benadryl]
B. Atropine sulfate
C. Out of bed activities and ambulation
D. Diazepam [Valium]
57. Nurse Penny is giving dietary instruction to a client with Menieres disease. Which statement if made by the client indicates that the teaching has been successful?
A. I will try to eat foods that are low in sodium and limit my fluid intake
B. I must drink atleast 3,000 ml of fluids per day
C. I will try to follow a 50% carbohydrate, 30% fat and 20% protein diet
D. I will not eat turnips, red meat and raddish
58. Vince was rushed by his father, Steven into the hospital admission. Vince is complaining of something buzzing into her ears. Nurse mike assessed peachy and found out It was an insect. What should be the first thing that Nurse Joemar should try to remove the insect out from peachy’s ear?
A. Use a flashlight to coax the insect out of Vince s ear
B. Instill an antibiotic ear drops
C. Irrigate the ear
D. Pick out the insect using a sterile clean forceps
59. Following an ear surgery, which statement if heard by Nurse Locca from the patient indicates a correct understanding of the post operative instructions?
A. Activities are resumed within 5 days
B. I will make sure that I will clean my hair and face to prevent infection
C. I will use straw for drinking
D. I should avoid air travel for a while
60. Nurse Locca will do a caloric testing to a client who sustained a blunt injury in the head. He instilled a cold water in the client’s right ear and he noticed that nystagmus occurred towards the left ear. What does this finding indicates?
A. Indicating a Cranial Nerve VIII Dysfunction
B. The test should be repeated again because the result is vague
C. This is Grossly abnormal and should be reported to the neurosurgeon
D. This indicates an intact and working vestibular branch of CN VIII
61. A client with Cataract is about to undergo surgery. Nurse Locca is preparing plan of care. Which of the following nursing diagnosis is most appropriate to address the long term need of this type of patient?
A. Anxiety R/T to the operation and its outcome
B. Sensory perceptual alteration R/T Lens extraction and replacement
C. Knowledge deficit R/T the pre operative and post operative self care
D. Body Image disturbance R/T the eye packing after surgery
62. Nurse Jose is performing a WEBERS TEST. He placed the tuning fork in the patients forehead after tapping it onto his knee. The client states that the fork is louder in the LEFT EAR. Which of the following is a correct conclusion for nurse Jose to make?
A. He might have a sensory hearing loss in the left ear
B. Conductive hearing loss is possible in the right ear
C. He might have a sensory hearing loss in the right hear, and/or a conductive hearing loss in the left ear.
D. He might have a conductive hearing loss in the right ear, and/or a sensory hearing loss in the left ear.
63. Lena has Menieres disease. What typical dietary prescription would nurse Locca expect the doctor to prescribe?
A. A low sodium , high fluid intake
B. A high calorie, high protein dietary intake
C. low fat, low sodium and high calorie intake
D. low sodium and restricted fluid intake
SITUATION : [ From DEC 1991 NLE ] A 45 year old male construction worker was admitted to a tertiary hospital for incessant vomiting. Assessment disclosed: weak rapid pulse, acute weight loss of .5kg, furrows in his tongue, slow flattening of the skin was noted when the nurse released her pinch.
Temperature: 35.8 C , BUN Creatinine ratio : 10 : 1, He also complains for postural hypotension. There was no infection.
64. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing diagnosis?
A. Fluid volume deficit R/T furrow tongue
B. Fluid volume deficit R/T uncontrolled vomiting
C. Dehydration R/T subnormal body temperature
D. Dehydration R/T incessant vomiting
65. Approximately how much fluid is lost in acute weight loss of .5kg?
A. 50 ml
B. 750 ml
C. 500 ml
D. 75 ml
66. Postural Hypotension is
A. A drop in systolic pressure less than 10 mmHg when patient changes position from lying to sitting.
B. A drop in systolic pressure greater than 10 mmHg when patient changes position from lying to sitting
C. A drop in diastolic pressure less than 10 mmHg when patient changes position from lying to sitting
D. A drop in diastolic pressure greater than 10 mmHg when patient changes position from lying to sitting
67. Which of the following measures will not help correct the patient’s condition
A. Offer large amount of oral fluid intake to replace fluid lost
B. Give enteral or parenteral fluid
C. Frequent oral care
D. Give small volumes of fluid at frequent interval
68. After nursing intervention, you will expect the patient to have
1. Maintain body temperature at 36.5 C
2. Exhibit return of BP and Pulse to normal
3. Manifest normal skin turgor of skin and tongue
4. Drinks fluids as prescribed
A. 1,3
B. 2,4
C. 1,3,4
D. 2,3,4
SITUATION: A 65 year old woman was admitted for Parkinson’s Disease. The charge nurse is going to make an initial assessment.
69. Which of the following is a characteristic of a patient with advanced Parkinson’s disease?
A. Disturbed vision
B. Forgetfulness
C. Mask like facial expression
D. Muscle atrophy
70. The onset of Parkinson’s disease is between 50-60 years old. This disorder is caused by
A. Injurious chemical substances
B. Hereditary factors
C. Death of brain cells due to old age
D. Impairment of dopamine producing cells in the brain
71. The patient was prescribed with Levodopa. What is the action of this drug?
A. Increase dopamine availability
B. Activates dopaminergic receptors in the basal ganglia
C. Decrease acetylcholine availability
D. Release dopamine and other catecholamine from neurological storage sites
72. You are discussing with the dietician what food to avoid with patients taking Levodopa?
A. Vitamin C rich food
B. Vitamin E rich food
C. Thiamine rich food
D. Vitamin B6 rich food
73. One day, the patient complained of difficulty in walking. Your response would be
A. You will need a cane for support
B. Walk erect with eyes on horizon
C. I’ll get you a wheelchair
D. Don’t force yourself to walk
SITUATION: Mr. Denden, a client with early Dementia exhibits thought process disturbances.
74. The nurse will assess a loss of ability in which of the following areas?
A. Balance
B. Judgment
C. Speech
D. Endurance
75. Mr. Denden Isla said he cannot comprehend what the nurse was saying. He suffers from:
A. Insomnia
B. Aphraxia
C. Agnosia
D. Aphasia
76. The nurse is aware that in communicating with an elderly client, the nurse will
A. Lean and shout at the ear of the client
B. Open mouth wide while talking to the client
C. Use a low-pitched voice
D. Use a medium-pitched voice
77. As the nurse talks to the daughter of Mr. Denden, which of the following statement of the daughter will require the nurse to give further teaching?
A. I know the hallucinations are parts of the disease
B. I told her she is wrong and I explained to her what is right
C. I help her do some tasks he cannot do for himself
D. Ill turn off the TV when we go to another room
78. Which of the following is most important discharge teaching for Mr. Denden
A. Emergency Numbers
B. Drug Compliance
C. Relaxation technique
D. Dietary prescription
SITUATION : Knowledge of the drug PROPANTHELINE BROMIDE [Probanthine] Is necessary in treatment of various disorders.
79. What is the action of this drug?
A. Increases glandular secretion for clients affected with cystic fibrosis
B. Dissolve blockage of the urinary tract due to obstruction of cystine stones
C. Reduces secretion of the glandular organ of the body
D. Stimulate peristalsis for treatment of constipation and obstruction
80. What should the nurse caution the client when using this medication
A. Avoid hazardous activities like driving, operating machineries etc.
B. Take the drug on empty stomach
C. Take with a full glass of water in treatment of Ulcerative colitis
D. I must take double dose if I missed the previous dose
81. Which of the following drugs are not compatible when taking Probanthine?
A. Caffeine
B. NSAID
C. Acetaminophen
D. Alcohol
82. What should the nurse tell clients when taking Probanthine?
A. Avoid hot weathers to prevent heat strokes
B. Never swim on a chlorinated pool
C. Make sure you limit your fluid intake to 1L a day
D. Avoid cold weathers to prevent hypothermia
83. Which of the following disease would Probanthine exert the much needed action for control or treatment of the disorder?
A. Urinary retention
B. Peptic Ulcer Disease
C. Ulcerative Colitis
D. Glaucoma
SITUATION : Mr. Fitch, 70 years old, suddenly could not lift his spoons nor speak at breakfast. He was rushed to the hospital unconscious. His diagnosis was CVA.
84. Which of the following is the most important assessment during the acute stage of an unconscious patient like Mr. Franco?
A. Level of awareness and response to pain
B. Papillary reflexes and response to sensory stimuli
C. Coherence and sense of hearing
D. Patency of airway and adequacy of respiration
85. Considering Mr. Fitch’s conditions, which of the following is most important to include in preparing Franco’s bedside equipment?
A. Hand bell and extra bed linen
B. Sandbag and trochanter rolls
C. Footboard and splint
D. Suction machine and gloves
86. What is the rationale for giving Mr. Fitch frequent mouth care?
A. He will be thirsty considering that he is doesn’t drink enough fluids
B. To remove dried blood when tongue is bitten during a seizure
C. The tactile stimulation during mouth care will hasten return to consciousness
D. Mouth breathing is used by comatose patient and it’ll cause oral mucosa dying and cracking.
87. One of the complications of prolonged bed rest is decubitus ulcer. Which of the following can best prevent its occurrence?
A. Massage reddened areas with lotion or oils
B. Turn frequently every 2 hours
C. Use special water mattress
D. Keep skin clean and dry
88. If Mr. Fitch’s Right side is weak, What should be the most accurate analysis by the nurse?
A. Expressive aphasia is prominent on clients with right sided weakness
B. The affected lobe in the patient is the Right lobe
C. The client will have problems in judging distance and proprioception
D. Clients orientation to time and space will be much affected
SITUATION : A 20 year old college student was rushed to the ER of PGH after he fainted during their ROTC drill. Complained of severe right iliac pain. Upon palpation of his abdomen, Ernie jerks even on slight pressure. Blood test was ordered. Diagnosis is acute appendicitis.
89. Which result of the lab test will be significant to the diagnosis?
A. RBC : 4.5 TO 5 Million / cu. mm.
B. Hgb : 13 to 14 gm/dl.
C. Platelets : 250,000 to 500,000 cu.mm.
D. WBC : 12,000 to 13,000/cu.mm
90. Stat appendectomy was indicated. Pre op care would include all of the following except?
A. Consent signed by the father
B. Enema STAT
C. Skin prep of the area including the pubis
D. Remove the jewelries
91. Pre-anesthetic med of Demerol and Atrophine sulfate were ordered to :
A. Allay anxiety and apprehension
B. Reduce pain
C. Prevent vomiting
D. Relax abdominal muscle
92. Common anesthesia for appendectomy is
A. Spinal
B. General
C. Caudal
D. Hypnosis
93. Post op care for appendectomy include the following except .
A. Early ambulation
B. Diet as tolerated after fully conscious
C. Nasogastric tube connect to suction
D. Deep breathing and leg exercise
94. Peritonitis may occur in ruptured appendix and may cause serious problems which are
1. Hypovolemia, electrolyte imbalance
2. Elevated temperature, weakness and diaphoresis
3. Nausea and vomiting, rigidity of the abdominal wall
4. Pallor and eventually shock
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1,2,3
D. All of the above
95. If after surgery the patient’s abdomen becomes distended and no bowel sounds appreciated, what would be the most suspected complication?
A. Intussusception
B. Paralytic Ileus
C. Hemorrhage
D. Ruptured colon
96. NGT was connected to suction. In caring for the patient with NGT, the nurse must
A. Irrigate the tube with saline as ordered
B. Use sterile technique in irrigating the tube
C. advance the tube every hour to avoid kinks
D. Offer some ice chips to wet lips
97. When do you think the NGT tube be removed?
A. When patient requests for it
B. Abdomen is soft and patient asks for water
C. Abdomen is soft and flatus has been expelled
D. B and C only
Situation: Imaw is suffering from chronic arteriosclerosis Brain syndrome she fell while getting out of the bed one morning and was brought to the hospital, and she was diagnosed to have cerebrovascular thrombosis thus transferred to a nursing home.
98. What do you call a STROKE that manifests a bizarre behavior?
A. Inorganic Stroke
B. Inorganic Psychoses
C. Organic Stroke
D. Organic Psychoses
99. The main difference between chronic and organic brain syndrome is that the former
A. Occurs suddenly and reversible
B. Is progressive and reversible
C. tends to be progressive and irreversible
D. Occurs suddenly and irreversible
100. Which behavior results from organic psychoses?
A. Memory deficit
B. Disorientation
C. Impaired Judgement
D. Inappropriate affect
